Instrument Oral Preparation

1.   Define the various types of cloud cover:

2. Define each class of airspace? 

a. Class A 

b. Class B 

 
c. Class C 

d. Class D 

e. Class E 

f.  Class F 

 

g. Class G 

3. Define:

a. True airspeed:

 

b. Indicated airspeed:

 

c. Calibrated airspeed:

 

d. Ground speed:

6. Compare/contrast VFR-Over-the-Top with VFR-on-Top:

  

8. Define: 

a. MEA 
 

b. MAA 
 

c. DH 
 

d: ALS 
 

e. MALS 
 

f. MALSR 
 

g. MCA 
 

h. MOCA 
 

i. MRA 
 

j. NOPT 
 

k. PAR 
 

l. RVR 

m. TDZL

 
n. HAA 
 

o. HAT 
 

p. VS0 
 

q, VS1

 

r. OROCA 

9. On what date does your medical certificate expire? 

 
10. Give examples of "category" and "class" as they pertain to a) airmen certification, and b) aircraft.

  
11. What time may an instrument pilot log as instrument flight time? 

12. What are the recency of flight requirements for instrument flight? 

13. Define transition root: 

 
14. Use of portable electronic devices by your passengers is prohibited: TRUE OR FALSE? 

  
15. What are the IFR fuel requirements? 

 
16. Where are Mode C transponders required? 

  
17. Describe the four types of VOR equipment checks:

  
18. What equipment is required to be installed in the aircraft for instrument flight? 

 
19.  What speed limits apply to airplanes?

 
21. It is illegal to turn off your strobe lights while flying IFR at night. TRUE OR FALSE? 

 
22. An alternate airport must be listed on any IFR flight plan unless:

 
23. What weather minima must be forecast at a given airport in order that you may list that field as an alternate? 

 
24. You may not continue an approach below MDA or DH unless:

  
25. On an ILS, the missed approach point is where? 

  
26. When is a procedure turn required?

27. What are the required components of an ILS? 

  
29. When may you operate below the published MEA? 

  
30. You are approaching a VOR enroute. The MEA is 5000 feet higher on the next leg (on the other side of the VOR.) When should you begin your climb to the new MEA? 

  
31. You are cleared "VFR conditions on top." At what altitudes may you fly? 

  
33. Required Reports:  List the thirteen required reports; note which are required at all times vs. not in radar contact. (AIM 5-3-2 and 5-3-3; FAR §91.183)

1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 
5. 
6. 
7. 
8. 
9. 
10. 
11. 
12. 
13. 

 

34. Why are pilots encouraged to monitor NDB audio continuously during NDB approaches? 

  
35. What are the correct instrument indications when checking a VOR on a VOT signal?

   
36. What is "slant range?" Why is it of concern to pilots when utilizing DME? 

  
37. What is the course width (full scale left to full scale right) of a localizer at the runway threshold? 

  
38. What is an LDA? 

  
39. What is an SDF? 

  
40. What is the "normal" glide slope angle?   

 
41. Your marker beacon receiver should normally be set to high or low sensitivity?   

 
42. What are the light colors and tones for the:

a.. OM 
 

b. MM 
 

c. IM   

  
48. Under what conditions might your aircraft be invisible to ATC radar?   

 
49. What are the positions and colors of a runway edge lighting system?   

 
50. Some airports permit pilot control of airport lighting when the airport is unattended. How is this done?   

 
 
53. What is the significance of the magenta fade on VFR charts

55. Pilots on IFR flight plans must continue to scan for other traffic when operating in VFR weather conditions, because they still are responsible to see and avoid other aircraft, except when inside Class B airspace. TRUE OR FALSE? 

 

56. While enroute, you notice that the course and altitude given to you by ATC will cause you to penetrate a restricted area. You should: 

a. begin circling, avoid the restricted airspace, and request and amended clearance from ATC. 

b. fly through the restricted airspace 

c. remain on course, but request an amended clearance far enough before the restricted airspace to permit the controller to issue a new clearance prior to penetration of the restricted area. 

 
d. request an amended clearance; if ATC will not provide one, then comply with your clearance and report the incident to the ATC facility manager as soon as practical after landing.   

 
57. Define:

a. Warning Area:

 

b. MOA:

 

c. Alert Area

 

d. Restricted Area:

 

e. Prohibited area:

Define:

a. SID:

 

b. DP:

 

c. STAR:

61. True or False:  When departing from or arriving at an airport not served by an operating control tower, IFR pilots are not required to announce their intentions on the CTAF, as they are required to be in contact with approach/departure control. 

 

62. What frequency is used for air-to-air communications?   

 
63. Wind speed and direction in an airport ATIS broadcast are given in:

a. MPH/true 
b. MPH/magnetic 
c. KTS/true 
d. KTS/magnetic   

65. TRUE OR FALSE: ATC is required to advise a pilot on an IFR flight plan of a converging VFR or unidentified track.        

 
66. What is a Tower Enroute Clearance? When and why would you use it?     

 
67. CESSNA TWO SIX ALPHA, CRUISE TEN THOUSAND." What does this clearance mean? What does it permit you to do--and not do?     

 

69. What should you do if you have not received a clearance past the clearance limit by the time specified in your answer to the previous question?     

 
70. When ATC assigns you a new altitude, what rate of climb or descent are you expected to use? 

 

71. Define:  NOTAM(L), NOTAM(D), FDC NOTAMS and Class II (NTAP) NOTAMS. (AIM 5-1-3)    

  
72. What NOTAMS are NOT included in your FSS Standard Briefing unless specifically requested by you?     

73. What type of NOTAMS are not disseminated either by computer or by written publication? How could you get such information, and what kind of information might it include?    

 
74. What is a composite flight plan?    

75. What suffixes are used to denote aircraft with the following equipment? 
a. no txp 
b. txp 
c. txp with Mode C 
d. DME, txp and Mode C 
e. RNAV, txp and Mode C    

 
76. Your destination is Jacksonville, FL. The weather forecast calls for 2000 and 3 for 1 hour before and after your ETA. An alternate is not required (why?), but a prudent pilot would file one anyway. Why?     

 
77. Your destination is an unattended, uncontrolled field. As such, your IFR flight plan is not automatically closed by ATC upon your arrival as it would be at a controlled airport. After landing and securing your aircraft, you find that the only phone on the field is out of service. Due to lack of line of sight coverage, you cannot contact any ATC facility by radio from the ground. Your cousin was to meet you at the airport, but is delayed. In all, it is two hours before you can get to a phone and call the FSS. What has happened during this time?     

 
78. What is a CLEARANCE VOID TIME? When, where and why is it used?     

 
79. What is a "SID?" If you do not have SID charts, how can you avoid getting a SID in your clearance?     

 
80. SID procedures provide obstacle clearance provided you climb to what altitude prior to turning?     

 
81. What is a "COP?"     

 
82. What is the length of the inbound leg of a holding pattern?     

 
83. When do you begin timing the outbound leg of a holding pattern?     

 
84. While on radar vectors for the final approach course, you see that you are crossing the localizer, but you have not been cleared for the approach. What should you do?     

 
85. What is an MSA? When would you fly it?     

 
86. What is an MVA?     

87. The approach controller issues the following clearance prior to you reaching the IAF: "CLEARED FOR THE APPROACH." Of the seven different approaches published for this airport, how do you know which one you must use?

88. While on the final approach segment of an IFR approach, you notice that you have a gear unsafe light. You decide to begin the missed approach early. When may you begin climbing? When may you turn away from the final approach course?  

89. You are in IMC. ATC clears you for the VISUAL APPROACH. What should you do?    

  
90. What is a CONTACT APPROACH? When might you get one?    

  
91. Under a lost communications condition, what course and altitudes must you fly?    

 
92. Both of your communications radios have failed, and your hand-held has a dead battery. How else might you receive voice communications from ATC?    

 
93. In a lost-communications scenario, at what time should you begin the instrument approach?    

  
94. Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAFs) are issued ? times daily.     

 
95. Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAFs) are valid for ? hours.     

 
96. A pilot should request a Standard Briefing when:    

  
97. What information, potentially critical to the safety of flight, is NOT included in a Standard Briefing unless specifically requested?     

 
98. A pilot should request an Abbreviated Briefing when:  

    
99. A pilot should request an outlook briefing when:    

  
100. You are enroute, at altitude, navigating by VOR. How might you obtain an in-flight update of your preflight briefing?     

 
101. Convective Sigmets are issued to alert pilots of what phenomena?     

 
 
103. SIGMETS are issued to alert pilots of what phenomena? 

 
104. AIRMETS are issued to alert pilots to what phenomena:  

105.  Define three types of AIRMETS:

     
105. What service provides radio broadcasts of selected weather? 

 
108. Ceilings in aviation weather reports are AGL or MSL?

       
113. How does advection fog form? Where in the Western US is it common?     

 
114. What is stable vs. unstable air?     

 
 
116. Given the following winds aloft forecast: 
          3000   9000       18000      30000 
PIE              1332+02  1356-27  750649 

a. What is the wind and temperature at 30,000 feet? 
 

b. Why are there no winds forecast for 3000?     

 
122. Describe the procedure for flying a DME arc.     

127. You are about to begin a standard rate turn. How do you estimate the approximate angle of bank?