The following questions are intended to direct your study as you prepare for an Instrument Pilot Rating checkride, or for an Instrument Proficiency Check. 

 

1.      Define "ceiling."  Broken or overcast sky (not few or scattered)

 


2. Which of the following is not controlled airspace? 

a. Class A 
b. Class B 
c. Class C 
d. Class D 
e. Class E 
f.  Class F  (Does not exist)

g. Class G  (uncontrolled)

 

3. Define equivalent airspeed: Equivalent airspeed is equal to calibrated airspeed in standard atmosphere at sea level.

 
4. Define true airspeed: (indicated or calculated airspeed corrected for temperature and altitude)

  
5. Flight time is from:

a. takeoff to touchdown 
b. runup to clear of landing runway 
c. first movement until coming to rest 
d. hobbs time (correct answer)

  

6. Compare/contrast VFR-Over-the-Top with VFR-on-Top:

VFR over the top is used to pass through clouds, then cancel and ride VFR.

VFR on top remains an IFR clearance.

  
7. What is the difference between an MM and an LMM? 

 
8. Define: 

MEA  Minimum enroute altitude  

Nav reception assured over the entire route segment
MAA 

Maximum authorized altitude
DH 

Decision Height
ALS

Approach lighting system
MALS 

Medium intensity approach lighting system
MALSR 

Medium intensity approach lighting system with runway alignment indicator lights

MCA 

Minimum crossing altitude
MOCA 

Minimum obstruction clearance altitude - 1,000' in in non-mountainous area; 2,000' in mountainous area
MRA 

Minimum reception altitude
NOPT 

No procedure turn required
PAR 

Precision Approach Radar
RCLM 

Runway centerline marking
RCLS 

Runway centerline lighting system
RVR 

Runway visual range
SSALS 

Simplified short approach light system
TDZL 

Touchdown zone lights
HAA 

Height above airport
HAT 

Height above terrain
VS0 

Stall speed in the landing configuration
VS1 

Stall speed in any other specified configuration

 

9. On what date does your medical certificate expire? 

(Last day of the month, 36, 24, 12, or 6 months after after exam)

 
10. Give examples of "category" and "class" as they pertain to a) airmen certification, and b) aircraft.

Airman:

Aircraft:  Category - Airship, rotary wing, airplane, etc;  Class - single engine, land; single engine sea; multi-engine, etc.)

  
11. What time may an instrument pilot log as instrument flight time? 

(Only that time that he is flying solely by reference to instruments)

 

12. What are the recency of flight requirements for instrument flight? 

(six approaches, and course intercepts in the past 6 months)

 

13. Define transition area: 

 
14. Use of portable electronic devices by your passengers is prohibited: TRUE OR FALSE? 

False 

 
15. What are the IFR fuel requirements? 

(destination, shoot approach, miss, then to alternate plus 45 minutes)

 
16. Where are Mode C transponders required?

 Mode C vail around Class B; Class C; above 10,000') 

  
17. Describe the four types of VOR equipment checks: 

(VOT; VOR checkpoint on ground, compare one to another; over known location)

  
18. What equipment is required to be installed in the aircraft for instrument flight? 

(HAC A RAT) Heading indicator, attitude indicator, adjustable altimeter, radio, alternator, transponder

 
19. Where must the ELT battery expiration date be recorded? 

 (Log book and on battery)

 
20. What are the aircraft speed limits? 

(none above 10,000'MSL; 250 below 10,000; . . .

 
21. It is illegal to turn off your strobe lights while flying IFR at night. TRUE OR FALSE? 

(False - turn off in clouds and on ramp)

 
22. An alternate airport must be listed on any IFR flight plan unless:

1-2-3 Rule:  one hour before/after planned arrival; two miles vis;  3,000' ceiling

 
23. What weather minima must be forecast at a given airport in order that you may list that field as an alternate? 

600/2 or 800/2  (600' ceiling and two miles)

 
24. You may not continue an approach below MDA or DH unless: 

  25. On an ILS, the missed approach point is where?

 (at DA/DH)

 

  26. You are approaching the St Pete-Clearwater airport. You are operating on an IFR flight plan. The approach controller gives you the following clearance: 
"CESSNA TWO SIX ALPHA, TURN LEFT, HEADING THREE THREE ZERO, VECTORS FOR THE LONG BEACH VOR RUNWAY 9 FINAL APPROACH COURSE, MAINTAIN TWO THOUSAND UNTIL ESTABLISHED, CLEARED FOR THE APPROACH, CONTACT THE TOWER AT THE VOR." 
What kind of procedure turn is required? 

(None - No PT if vectors to final approach course given or if NoPT stated on plate)

  

27. What are the required components of an ILS? 

Localizer, glideslope, marker beacons, approach lighting system  (supplemental aids: Compass locator (NDB) and DME.

  
28. What navigation facilities may you substitute for the: 
a. outer marker 

Compass locator (NDB), DME, PAR or ASR position report
b. middle marker 
Compass Locator or PAR (Not ASR or DME)
 

29. When may you operate below the published MEA?

When a MOCA for the route segment is published. 

  
30. You are approaching a VOR enroute. The MEA is 5000 feet higher on the next leg (on the other side of the VOR.) When should you begin your climb to the new MEA?

At the fix where the higher MEA begins. 

  
31. You are cleared "VFR conditions on top." At what altitudes may you fly? 

  Standard VFR altitudes, but must comply with other IFR requirements, e.g., MEAs, position reporting, etc.
 

32. Define "route" when you are: 
a. on an airway: 
b. off airway  

  
33. List the thirteen required reports; note which are required at all times vs. not in radar contact. (AIM 5-3-2 and 5-3-3; FAR §91.183)

1.  when vacating a previously assigned altitude
2. altitude change when operating VFR on Top
3.  unable to climb or descend at 500fpm
4. initiating a missed approach
5. change in airspeed of 10kts or 5% (which ever is greater) from flight planned speed.
6. time/altitude reaching a holding fix or clearance limit.
7. leaving a holding fix
8. any loss of navigation or communications capability.
9. information relative to safety of flight
10. unforecast wx conditions
----------------

11.  leaving final approach fix inbound on a nonprecision approach
12. leaving outer marker inbound on a precision approach
13. time estimate to a fix is in error by greater than 3 minutes

 

34. Why are pilots encouraged to monitor NDB audio continuously during NDB approaches? 

(No flag to indicate outage)

  
35. What are the correct instrument indications when checking a VOR on a VOT signal?

(180dg to; 360 deg from)

   
36. What is "slant range?" Why is it of concern to pilots when utilizing DME? 

(It takes into account altitude)

  
37. What is the course width (full scale left to full scale right) of a localizer at the runway threshold? 

  
38. What is an LDA? 

  
39. What is an SDF? 

  
40. What is the "normal" glide slope angle?    (3 degrees;  sometimes 4)

 
41. Your marker beacon receiver should normally be set to high or low sensitivity?   (low)

 
42. What are the Morse code identifiers and light colors for
a. OM 
b. MM 
c. IM   

 
43. What are the morse code identifiers transmitted by: 
a. LOM 
b. LMM   

 
44. Sometimes VOR's are allowed to continue transmitting navigation signals even while the facility is undergoing maintenance. During these times the navigation signals may be dangerously inaccurate. What two means are available to alert you, the pilot, that these signals are not to be used?   

 
45. How might you have found out about this (43, above) prior to takeoff?   

 
46. What is the accuracy of LORAN-C?   

 
47. If a LORAN station was out of service, how would you know?   

 
48. Under what conditions might your aircraft be invisible to ATC radar?   

 
49. What are the positions and colors of a runway edge lighting system?   

 
50. Some airports permit pilot control of airport lighting when the airport is unattended. How is this done?    (mike clicks)

 
51. Define Class E airspace:    (everything else)

 
52. Define Class A airspace: (18,000' to 60,000'  

 
53. What is the significance of the magenta tint on VFR charts (G goes up to 700')

  
54. Define Class D airspace 

 

55. Pilots on IFR flight plans must continue to scan for other traffic when operating in VFR weather conditions, because they still are responsible to see and avoid other aircraft, except when inside Class B airspace. TRUE OR FALSE? 

(False - always must scan in VFR)
 

56. While enroute, you notice that the course and altitude given to you by ATC will cause you to penetrate a restricted area. You should: 
a. begin circling, avoid the restricted airspace, and request and amended clearance from ATC. 
b. fly through the restricted airspace 
c. remain on course, but request an amended clearance far enough before the restricted airspace to permit the controller to issue a new clearance prior to penetration of the restricted area. 
d. request an amended clearance; if ATC will not provide one, then comply with your clearance and report the incident to the ATC facility manager as soon as practical after landing.   

 

Answer:  c.


57. What is a Warning Area?   

 
58. Same situation as question 56, above, except the airspace in question is a MOA. What should you do?   

 
59. Define an Alert Area. 

 

60. Standard Instrument Departures provide terrain clearance during your departure and climb provided the aircraft maintains a climb gradient of not less than ___________ feet per nautical mile.   

61. True or False:  When departing from or arriving at an airport not served by an operating control tower, IFR pilots are not required to announce their intentions on the CTAF, as they are required to be in contact with approach/departure control. 

 

62. What frequency is used for air-to-air communications?   

 
63. Wind speed and direction in an airport ATIS broadcast are given in: 
a. MPH/true 
b. MPH/magnetic 
c. KTS/true 
d. KTS/magnetic   

 
64. You have listened to the ATIS of your destination airport. The correct way to convey this to the approach controller is: 
a. CESSNA TWO SIX ALPHA HAS THE NUMBERS 
b. CESSNA TWO SIX ALPHA INFORMATION ZULU RECEIVED 
c. CESSNA TWO SIX ALPHA HAS THE INFORMATION  

65. TRUE OR FALSE:ATC is required to advise a pilot on an IFR flight plan of a converging VFR or unidentified track.        

 
66. What is a Tower Enroute Clearance? When and why would you use it?     

 
67. CESSNA TWO SIX ALPHA, CRUISE TEN THOUSAND." What does this clearance mean? What does it permit you to do--and not do?     

 
68. ATC will generally issue holding instructions how many minutes prior to you reaching the holding fix? 
69. What should you do if you have not received a clearance past the clearance limit by the time specified in your answer to the previous question?     

 
70. When ATC assigns you a new altitude, what rate of climb or descent are you expected to use? 

 

71. Compare and contrast NOTAM(L), NOTAM(D), FDC NOTAMS and Class II (NTAP) NOTAMS. (AIM 5-1-3)    

  
72. What NOTAMS are NOT included in your FSS Standard Briefing unless specifically requested by you?     

73. What type of NOTAMS are not disseminated either by computer or by written publication? How could you get such information, and what kind of information might it include?    

 
74. What is a composite flight plan?    

 

   

75. What suffixes are used to denote aircraft with the following equipment? 
a. no txp 
b. txp 
c. txp with Mode C 
d. DME, txp and Mode C 
e. RNAV, txp and Mode C    

 
76. Your destination is Jacksonville, FL. The weather forecast calls for 2000 and 3 for 1 hour before and after your ETA. An alternate is not required (why?), but a prudent pilot would file one anyway. Why?     

 
77. Your destination is an unattended, uncontrolled field. As such, your IFR flight plan is not automatically closed by ATC upon your arrival as it would be at a controlled airport. After landing and securing your aircraft, you find that the only phone on the field is out of service. Due to lack of line of sight coverage, you cannot contact any ATC facility by radio from the ground. Your cousin was to meet you at the airport, but is delayed. In all, it is two hours before you can get to a phone and call the FSS. What has happened during this time?     

 
78. What is a CLEARANCE VOID TIME? When, where and why is it used?     

 
79. What is a "SID?" If you do not have SID charts, how can you avoid getting a SID in your clearance?     

 
80. SID procedures provide obstacle clearance provided you climb to what altitude prior to turning?     

 
81. What is a "COP?"     

 
82. What is the length of the inbound leg of a holding pattern?     

 
83. When do you begin timing the outbound leg of a holding pattern?     

 
84. While on radar vectors for the final approach course, you see that you are crossing the localizer, but you have not been cleared for the approach. What should you do?     

 
85. What is an MSA? When would you fly it?     

 
86. What is an MVA?     

 

87. The approach controller issues the following clearance prior to you reaching the IAF: "CLEARED FOR THE APPROACH." Of the seven different approaches published for this airport, how do you know which one you must use?

 

88. While on the final approach segment of an IFR approach, you notice that you have a gear unsafe light. You decide to begin the missed approach early. When may you begin climbing? When may you turn away from the final approach course?    

89. You are in IMC. ATC clears you for the VISUAL APPROACH. What should you do?    

  
90. What is a CONTACT APPROACH? When might you get one?    

  
91. Under a lost communications condition, what course and altitudes must you fly?    

 
92. Both of your communications radios have failed, and your hand-held has a dead battery. How else might you receive voice communications from ATC?    

 
93. In a lost-communications scenario, at what time should you begin the instrument approach?    

  
94. Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAFs) are issued ? times daily.     

 
95. Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAFs) are valid for ? hours.     

 
96. A pilot should request a Standard Briefing when:    

  
97. What information, potentially critical to the safety of flight, is NOT included in a Standard Briefing unless specifically requested?     

 
98. A pilot should request an Abbreviated Briefing when:      
99. A pilot should request an outlook briefing when:    

  
100. You are enroute, at altitude, navigating by VOR. How might you obtain an inflight update of your preflight briefing?     

 
101. Convective Sigmets are issued to alert pilots of what phenomena?     

 
102. When are Convective Sigmets broadcast?    

 
103. SIGMETS are issued to alert pilots of what phenomena?     

 
104. AIRMETS are issued to alert pilots to what phenomena:    

  
105. What service provides radio broadcasts of selected weather? 

 

106. What is the broadcast schedule for Severe Weather Forecast Alerts (AWW) and Convective SIGMETS?     

 
107. What is the broadcast schedule for SIGMETS, CWA's and AIRMETS?     

 
108. Ceilings in aviation weather reports are AGL or MSL? Refer to your enroute low altitude chart.    

 

 

109. Your are flying from Tampa to Ft Myers via V35. 
What is the MEA? 
Where is the COP? 
How far is it from Fillmore to Avenal? 
How far is it from Fillmore to Reyes intersection?     

 
110. You are flying V107 from Santa Monica to Avenal. You have lost all communications capability. You filed and were assigned an altitude of 5000 feet MSL.   What is the MEA between GINNA intersection and Fillmore VOR?   What is the MEA between Fillmore VOR and PIRUE intersection?   When should you begin your climb to the higher MEA?     

 
111. You are flying from Van Nuys to San Luis Obispo. The forecast calls for a freezing level of 7000 MSL. What route should you take? What cruising altitude will you request?     

 
112. What are frontal waves? (Aviation Weather)     

 
113. How does advection fog form? Where in the Western US is it common?     

 
114. What is stable vs. unstable air?     

 
115. What conditions are indicative of greater possibility of thunderstorms? 
a. Excellent visibility 
b. Poor visibility 
c. Smooth air 
d. Stratus clouds 
e. Turbulence 
f. Scattered, puffy clouds     

 
116. Given the following winds aloft forecast: 
          3000   9000       18000      30000 
PIE              1332+02  1356-27  750649 
a. What is the wind and temperature at 30,000 feet? 
b. Why are there no winds forecast for 3000?     

 
117. In the winds aloft forecast, altitudes are true or pressure?     

 
118. Refer to the Lakeland VOR Runway 9 approach plate. The ATIS reports visibility of 3/4 in haze and smoke, sky partially obscured, estimated ceiling 800 broken. You conduct the approach and are able to see the threshold and the ALS prior to reaching the MAP. After landing ground control instructs you to call the tower immediately after securing your aircraft. What has happened?     

 
119. You are at the St Pete VOR; the controller clears you for the Ocala ILS 36. What altitudes and routes do you fly, and where may you begin your descent in each case?     

 
120. What are the IAF's for the Lakeland VOR 27 approach?    

 
121. Refer to the St Pete LOC BC Rwy 35 Approach. This is a non-precision approach; why are there no FAF to MAP times listed at the bottom of the chart?     

 
122. Describe the procedure for flying a DME arc.     

 
123. You are flying from Santa Monica, CA (SMO) to San Diego-Lindberg, CA (SAN) via the following clearance: 
LAX V64 SLI V23 MZB 
Just as you arrive over the Oceanside VOR (OCN) you loose all communications capability. You are in IMC. You decide to use the LOC Rwy 27 approach, and you have not been given an EFC time. 
Will you have to hold? (Assume you are on schedule.) If you must hold, where and for how long? When will you leave which fix to begin the approach?     

 
124. Same as 122, above, except you have an EFC time of 25 minutes past the hour. Your filed ETA is 27 minutes past the hour.     

 
125. What is a TEC Route?     

 
126. Where can you obtain a listing of the TEC routes for your area? 

 

127. You are about to begin a standard rate turn. How do you estimate the approximate angle of bank?    

  
128. State the approximate relationship between manifold pressure, rpm, rate of climb/descent and airspeed.     

 
129. To transition from a climb or descent to level flight, begin the level-off how far from your desired altitude? 

 

130. To correct an altitude error (deviation from desired altitude in level flight) use a rate of climb (or descent) equal to: ?     

 
131. During straight and level flight, use pitch alone to correct altitude errors of less than ________ feet; for larger errors, ________ must also be used.     

 
132. While flying an ILS, use (pitch/power) corrections alone to deal with small deviations from the glideslope. For large needle deflections, or when airspeed changes significantly, you must also use what?    

  
133. Describe the procedure for changing airspeed during straight and level flight.     

 
134. Describe the procedure for changing configuration during straight and level flight at a constant airspeed.    

 
135. What are the Five "A's," and when do you do them?     

 
136. What are the Six "T's," and when do you do them?    

  
137. Describe the procedure for unusual attitude recovery, nose high, and nose low.     

 
138. The Lakeland ILS 5 plate provides for flying the ILS without the glideslope, or "GS OUT." What is the difference between this and the Lakeland LOC 5 approach? Why are they different?     

 
139. When can you use a GPS for enroute IFR navigation? 

 

140. When may you use a GPS for an instrument approach?